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MRCOG PART 2 SBAs and EMQs

Course PAID
notes341
EMQ1499
SBA2088
Management of labour » Essays
A 25 year old woman presents in labour at 5cm dilatation in the 39th week of her first pregnancy. Four hours later, she is 6cm dilated on vaginal examination with intact membranes. (a) Justify your clinical Show Answer 2012-08-26 2055 views
Women having a vaginal delivery after one previous caesarean section are at increased risk of uterine rupture. (a) How can this risk be reduced? [6 marks](b) How would you identify and manage this complication Show Answer 2012-08-26 1727 views
You have decided to perform an emergency caesarean section following a failed ventouse delivery of a fetus in the occipito-posterior position. There is no evidence of fetal compromise. (a) Discuss the Show Answer 2012-09-13 1648 views
You have just performed a Neville-Barnes forceps delivery on a primigravida for delay in the second stage of labour and identified a third degree tear. Justify your management of this laceration Show Answer 2010-11-02 1393 views
Debate the use of cardiotocography in low risk uncomplicated labours. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1316 views
A 38 year old woman with an uncomplicated pregnancy requests induction of labour at 40 weeks gestation for personal reasons. How would you counsel her? Show Answer 2010-11-02 1343 views
Justify your management of a woman who has retained her placenta following a spontaneous vaginal delivery. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1563 views
A 30 year old woman is found to have a fetus with a transverse lie at 38 weeks gestation. Justify your management. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1280 views
You have been called urgently to the delivery room because the midwife has encountered difficulties with delivery of the fetal shoulders. Justify your actions. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1217 views
A 30 year old woman presents at 42 weeks gestation with spontaneous rupture of the fetal membranes and meconium stained liquor. Her pregnancy had been uncomplicated and she is not in labour. Justify your Show Answer 2010-11-02 1398 views
A 30 year old woman presents at 38 weeks gestation with spontaneous rupture of the fetal membranes but no uterine activity. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Justify your management. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1165 views
A 30 year old woman collapses during delivery of the placenta. On assessment, you identify an inverted uterus with the placenta attached at the fundus. Justify your management. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1314 views
A 30 year old primigravida is referred at 40+3 weeks gestation following spontaneous rupture of membranes 30 hours earlier. She was booked for a home confinement and is reluctant to have medical intervention. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1121 views
A 40 year old solicitor is referred to you by her independent midwife 38 weeks into her first pregnancy. She has read that fetal monitoring in labour results in an increased risk of caesarean section Show Answer 2010-11-02 1086 views
What are the adverse effects of vaginal delivery on the pelvic floor and how can these be prevented? Show Answer 2010-11-02 1115 views
A 30 year old multiparous woman collapses suddenly during labour at 7cm dilatation. There is no vaginal bleeding and her uterus is soft. List the possible diagnoses and outline your management. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1275 views
Critically appraise the different methods of intra-partum fetal monitoring. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1084 views
Debate the premise that in all normal pregnancies that progress beyond the expected date of delivery, induction of labour should be recommended at or before 42 weeks gestation. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1125 views
A 34 year old asylum seeker has been admitted in spontaneous labour at term. Clinical examination reveals that she has been the victim of infibulation. Outline the potential intra-partum and post-partum Show Answer 2010-11-02 1185 views
A 34 year old woman has been counselled and admitted for induction of labour at 42 weeks gestation. She has one previous caesarean section for placenta previa. (a) How would you minimise the risk of uterine Show Answer 2010-11-02 1216 views
A healthy 28 year old primigravida with a normal pregnancy presents in spontaneous labour at 39 weeks gestation. She is exhausted after 1h of active pushing. The cervix is fully dilated with a direct Show Answer 2010-11-02 1334 views
You are asked to review a healthy 35 year old woman 30 minutes after spontaneous vaginal delivery because she is suspected of having a third degree tear. (a) Justify your initial assessment [5 marks]. Show Answer 2010-11-02 1209 views
A healthy 32 year old primigravida has been in spontaneous labour with normal progress during the first stage. She is using epidural analgesia. You are asked to see her 3 hours after full dilatation because Show Answer 2011-08-28 1180 views
A healthy 34 year old woman presents with spontaneous rupture of the membranes and uterine contractions at 39 weeks gestation. She has two previous vaginal deliveries and one previous caesarean section. Show Answer 2012-07-15 946 views
A healthy 38 year old woman with 2 previous vaginal births presents in spontaneous labour at 41 weeks gestation. At 08:30, her cervix is 6cm dilated with a direct occipito-anterior position 2cm above Show Answer 2013-06-30 679 views