A 49 year old woman is referred to the gynaecology clinic complaining of low libido which is now adversely affecting her marriage. She has been on sequential combined hormone replacement therapy for 3 years to manage menopausal symptoms.
Why is the correct answer implant rather than topical use?
BMS suggests use of gels; the implants are not easily available.
Posted by
Katarzyna K.
Options for Questions 11-11
A
Reassure and discharge
B
Explain that risks of HRT outweigh benefits
C
Oral oestrogen + progestogen replacement
D
Oral oestrogen + progestogen replacement for up to 6 months
E
Oral oestrogen + progestogen replacement for up to 12 months
F
Trans-dermal oestrogen + progestogen replacement
G
Oral or trans-dermal oestrogen + progestogen replacement
Instructions: For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 11
A healthy 51 year old woman attends the gynaecology clinic because of severe hot flushes. Her last menstrual period was 3 months ago and she has been having irregular periods every 1-6 months for the last 2 years. She has no significant personal or family history
Could you please advice Why is the answer transdermal, rather than oral or transdermal?
