A 63 year old woman has been referred to the gynaecology clinic by a physician. The woman has symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome that have not improved with first and second line therapies. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis identified a 3 cm simple left ovarian cyst but no other abnormalities. The woman had a vaginal hysterectomy 12 years ago because of prolapse symptoms.
A. Reassure
B. Diagnostic laparoscopy
C. CA-125
D. Trans-vaginal ultrasound scan
E. CA-125 plus trans-vaginal ultrasound scan
Posted by Farrukh G.
Correct answer = E
RCOG Guidelines July 2016:
Where the initial imaging modality was a CT scan, unless this clearly indicated ovarian malignancy and widespread intra-abdominal disease, an ultrasound scan should be obtained in order to calculate the Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI)
