A 72 year old woman has been referred for colposcopy because of post-menopausal bleeding and an ulcerating lesion on her cervix. Biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma. MRI scan shows a lesion on the ectocervix extending into the upper third of the vagina and the parametrium but not extending to the pelvic side-wall. There is pelvic lymphadenopathy. Which one is the most appropriate treatment option?
Dear Paul,
can you clarify this question where the answer should be option E based on the staging mentioned which is stage 2 a.....??
