Instructions:For each of the scenarios below, choose the single most appropriate management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 38
A healthy 35 year old woman attends for routine cervical smear. Her previous smears were negative. She is found to have mild dyskaryosis. Testing for high risk HPV is negative.
Hi paul,
Should the answer to the above be back to normal recall rather than repeating 6 months since the hpv is negative?
Options for Questions 40-40
A
CA-125
B
CA-125 and CEA
C
CA-125, CEA and Inhibin-A
D
CA-125, CEA, HE4 and Inhibin-A
E
CA-125, CEA, AFP and Inhibin-A
F
CA-125, CEA, HCG and Inhibin-A
G
CA-125, CEA, CA19.9 and Inhibin-A
H
CA-125, CEA, CA19.9
I
CA-125, AFP, HCG, LDH
J
CA-125, AFP, HCG, LDH and Inhibin-A
K
AFP, HCG, LDH and Inhibin-A
L
CEA, CA19.9 and Inhibin-A
Instructions:For the scenario below, choose the single most appropriate tumour markers from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 40
A healthy 36 year old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 6 months history of vague abdominal discomfort and increased urinary frequency. Abdominal examination identifies an abdomino-pelvic mass. Ultrasound scan confirms a 9cm complex right ovarian mass. The left ovary, kidneys, ureters, liver and pancreas are normal. There is no ascites.
For this question, the GTG did not include inhibin as part of the tumor markers? Should we still choose the option with inhibin inside?
Thanks alot paul!
Posted by Farrukh G.
Thanks - you are right. The explanation on-line is correct but the wrong answer was entered in error. These have been updated.
