The smart way to learn. The smart way to teach.

MRCOG PART 2 SBAs and EMQs

Course PAID
notes336
EMQ1502
SBA2115
Do you realy want to delete this discussion?
Forum >>

Tubal disease

Tubal disease Posted by Angeldust S.

 

Hi Paul,
COuld u explain to me how to derive at the answer in part 4? AS to why HSG is not a reliable indicator of tubal occlusion. I refer to your answer as below.
Thanks alot!
 
Explanation
Women who are not known to have comorbidities (such as pelvic inflammatory disease, previous ectopic pregnancy or endometriosis) should be offered HSG to screen for tubal occlusion because this is a reliable test for ruling out tubal occlusion, is less invasive and makes better use of resources than laparoscopy
 
Question: With respect to tubal patency tests in women with primary infertility
Tubal disease accounts for 50% of the causes of sub-fertility in women
   True    False Your answer: False Correct answer: False
Using laparoscopy as a gold standard, HSG has a sensitivity of 90-95%
   True    False Your answer: False Correct answer: False
Using laparoscopy as gold standard, HSG has a specificity of 80-90%
   True    False Your answer: False Correct answer: False
In asymptomatic women, HSG is not a reliable indicator of tubal occlusion
   True    False Your answer: False Correct answer: True

 

Regarding some EMQ questions Posted by Angeldust S.

 

Options for Questions 38-38
A Repeat smear in 1 month B Repeat smear in 3 months
C Repeat smear in 6 months D Repeat smear in 3 years
E Repeat smear in 5 years F Repeat smear in 10 years
G Refer for colposcopy H Take smear at colposcopy
I Diathermy loop excision J Cryotherapy
K Cold coagulation L Treat infection
M Treat infection and repeat smear within 3 months N Radical abdominal hysterectomy

Instructions:For each of the scenarios below, choose the single most appropriate management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 38 A healthy 35 year old woman attends for routine cervical smear. Her previous smears were negative. She is found to have mild dyskaryosis. Testing for high risk HPV is negative.

Hi paul,

Should the answer to the above be back to normal recall rather than repeating 6 months since the hpv is negative?

 

Options for Questions 40-40
A CA-125 B CA-125 and CEA
C CA-125, CEA and Inhibin-A D CA-125, CEA, HE4 and Inhibin-A
E CA-125, CEA, AFP and Inhibin-A F CA-125, CEA, HCG and Inhibin-A
G CA-125, CEA, CA19.9 and Inhibin-A H CA-125, CEA, CA19.9
I CA-125, AFP, HCG, LDH J CA-125, AFP, HCG, LDH and Inhibin-A
K AFP, HCG, LDH and Inhibin-A L CEA, CA19.9 and Inhibin-A

Instructions:For the scenario below, choose the single most appropriate tumour markers from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 40 A healthy 36 year old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 6 months history of vague abdominal discomfort and increased urinary frequency. Abdominal examination identifies an abdomino-pelvic mass. Ultrasound scan confirms a 9cm complex right ovarian mass. The left ovary, kidneys, ureters, liver and pancreas are normal. There is no ascites.

For this question, the GTG did not include inhibin as part of the tumor markers right? Should we still choose the option with inhibin inside?

 

Thanks alot paul!