Dear Farrukh can you please. Clarify this EMQ
A 36year old women with 35 year old partner has been referred to infertility clinic because 2year of primary infertility.the women has regular 28 days cycle.BMI 26 and no oath their symptom.investigations show normal LH=7.5mlU/mlFHS=17mIU/ml.thyroid function prolactin and 21dayprogesterone show normal ovulatory cycle.partner SA normal.HSG confirm bilateral patent tube.
Single most appropriate management?
Options
A)IVF. E)clomifen
B)IUI. F)gonadotropin induction ovulation
C)lap&dye. G)metformin
D)laparoscopy ovarian drilling. H)cabergoline.
I)HSG. J)weight reduction
L)measure serum androgen
Correct answe is IUI
MY Answer was IVF
Explaination. As poor ovarian reserve. Go for IUI
NICE guideline donot say this???
Please can you help?