Respected Dr Paul
Sorry to disturb you ,plz can I know ,in these. emcq of urogyne the answer why given
like this , I am sorry that previously I posted but it did not appear well so I am posting again .
Liza
Options for Questions 10-10
A Shelf pessery B Abdominal sacro-colpopexy
C Sacro-spinous fixation D Anterior colporrhaphy with mesh from rectus
sheath
E Anterior colporrhaphy with absorbable synthetic mesh F Anterior
colporrhaphy with combination of absorbable and non-absorbable mesh
G Anterior colporrhaphy with non-absorbable Type I mesh H Anterior
colporrhaphy with non-absorbable Type II mesh
I Anterior colporrhaphy with non-absorbable Type III mesh J Anterior
colporrhaphy with non-absorbable Type IV mesh
K Colposuspension L Tension-free vaginal tape
M Trans-obturator tape N Laparoscopic sacro-colpopexy
Instructions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most
appropriate management from the above list of options. Each option may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 10 A healthy 67 year old woman attends the gynaecology clinic
with 6 months history of feeling a lump in the vagina but no other
symptoms. She experienced similar symptoms 4 years earlier and was cured
by anterior colporrhaphy. On examination, there is a stage 3 anterior
vaginal wall prolapse with no evidence of stress urinary incontinence.
Why the answer is G Why not L
She already had anterior colporraphy ,again she has to have anterior
colporraphy with type 1 mash
Options for Questions 11-11
A Risk of bladder injury B Risk of bleeding
C Risk of infection D Risk of venous thromboembolism
E Risk of mesh migration F Risk of rectal injury
G Risk of recurrent prolapse H Risk of posterior vaginal prolapse
I Risk of urinary incontinence J Risk of urethral injury
K Risk of ureteric injury L Risk of vaginal dryness
Instructions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most
important risk that should be discussed from the above list of options.
Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 11 A 45 year old woman with a 6 months history of a vaginal lump
is found to have a stage III anterior vaginal prolapse. Her BMI is 37. She
is due to undergo anterior vaginal wall repair using Type I mesh.
We have to discuss most common risk here why mesh migration which a rare
complication
Posted by Farrukh G.
Mesh migration is the risk that is likely to have greatest impact on the woman. You were not asked about the most common risk. The most common risk is not necessarily the most important.
urodynamics
Posted by Hamdy H.
please can you advise on urodynamics where can i find interpretations as there were more than one question in EMQS about this i,e. low capicity bladder , neuropathic, interstial cystitis...etc as you know they give you results of urodynamics and i am required to tell what most likely diagnosis
thanks
hamdy
urogynacoloy
Posted by ghazala A.
dear sir
can u give us lecture notes on urogynacology .the most imprtant thing which i need is how to interpret graphic results .